[Par-reg] MATOT - Questions for self study

Menachem Leibtag tsc at bezeqint.net
Tue Jul 26 10:00:07 EDT 2005


*************************************************************

     THE TANACH STUDY CENTER [http://www.tanach.org]

          In Memory of Rabbi Abraham Leibtag

     Shiurim in Chumash & Navi by Menachem Leibtag

*************************************************************

 

             PARSHAT MATOT / MASEI

                               

PART I - QUESTIONS FOR THE 'SHABBOS TABLE'

 

THE 'HOLY' WAR AGAINST MIDYAN

1. In your opinion, why do think that specifically Pinchas was

chosen to lead the battle against the Midyanites, and not

Yehoshua - who had earlier led the battle against Amalek, or

Moshe Rabeinu himself - who had earlier led the battle against

Sichon?

     Relate your answer to both WHO Bnei Yisrael are fighting,

and WHY Bnei Yisrael are fighting?

  [Would you suspect that Moshe Rabeinu's family relationship

  with Midyan may have affected Godעs considerations?]

 

2.  Review 31:5-6.  Based on these psukim, is it clear that

Pinchas in sent to lead the nation in battle? If not, why is

he being sent? Relate your answer to the purpose of this

battle, and to Devarim 20:1-9.

 

3.   Based on 31:35, we have an approx. population figure for

the female children of Midyan (i.e. 32,000).  Accordingly,

approximate how many adult males would there be in Midyan,

and hence - how large was Midyan's army?

  Considering that Bnei Yisrael's army had a potential of

600,000 soldiers (see 26:50-53), what logical reason is there

for God's specific commandment to send only 12,000 men into

battle (i.e. one thousand for each tribe).  [Relate this

observation to your answer.]

 

4. See Ramban on 31:6, in regard to why only 12,000 men were

sent to fight that battle (and not the entire army).

  See also Ibn Ezra on 31:8, and relate his commentary to our

shiur on Parshat Balak.

 

5. Following the battle, how was the booty split between the

people and the soldiers?  From each respective booty, what

percentage was given to God (i.e. from both Bnei Yisrael and

from the soldiers who fought)? Can you explain why?

     [In your answer, relate to 31:28 & 31:47!]

     What is the logic of these percentages?

 

6. Note the phrase "chukat ha'torah" in 31:21-24. What does

this phrase mean and what does it relate to? In your answer,

relate to the meaning of these words as explained in our shiur

on Parshat Chukat [re: Parshat Para/ Bamidbar chapter 19].

     In these four psukim, can you identify a specific set of

"chukim" (laws that are set and don't change), as well as a

"torah" - i.e. a procedural type law?

     Note as well the phrase "chukat mishpat" in last week's

Parsha (see Bamidbar 27:11, in reference to 27:6-11).  Note

there as well what is considered a "mishpat" (resolving a

dispute through the court system) and what is a "chok" (a set

law that doesn't change)!

 

THE TWO & A HALF TRIBES

1. Based on the opening pasuk of the story of Bnei Gad &

Reuven (see 32:1), attempt to explain why this story follows

immediately after the story of the war against Midyan (i.e.

chapter 31).

     [In your answer, be sure to relate to 31:32.]

     In your opinion, is there a more 'appropriate' location

(either chronological or thematic) for this chapter in Sefer

Bamdibar?  If so, explain where; and why you think the Torah

preferred to record it here instead.

 

2. Review 34:16-29. Attempt to give a title to this parshia,

and explain how it relates to the parshiot which precede it

and follow it.

     In what way is the parshia similar to the opening parshia

concerning the "meraglim" in the beginning of Parshat Shlach

(see 13:1-18)? In what manner is it different?

     Which tribes are missing from the list in 34:16-29!?

          Can you explain why?

               [The answer is very simple!]

     Next, review those psukim carefully once again, noting

which tribal leaders are NOT referred to as NASI.

     Can you explain why?  [The answer is very difficult, and

if do find one, please tell me!]

 

TWELVE TRIBES & SHEVET LEVI

1. Can you explain the logic of Am Yisrael having twelve

independent tribes?  Considering that we all serve the same

God, would it not have been better for Am Yisrael to be simply

one united nation, i.e. without the institution of tribes at

all?  [Would this not enhance the unity of Am Yisrael?]

     If you do find value to this concept of 12 tribes,

attempt to relate it to the overall purpose of Am Yisrael to

become a model nation before all nations.

     Can your answer help explain why in Sefer Bamidbar we

find so many topics that relate to the TWELVE tribes and their

leaders? [including Parshat Matot itself!]

 

2. What is the purpose of separating the tribe of Levi? Is

their sole responsibility simply to work in the Mishkan/

Mikdash?

     If so, why are their cities scattered among all twelve

tribes (see 35:1-8).  If not, what else are they supposed to

do all day?

     In your answer, relate to Devarim 17:8-11, 33:8-11 &

Bamidbar 3:5-13.

     How are the Leviim supposed to support themselves if they

only have cities, but no land to cultivate?

  In your answer, relate to Bamidbar 18:21-32.  Read that

section carefully, noting especially 18:21, 18:24,& 18:31.

 

3. In relation to the above questions, see Rambam - Mishne

Torah, the very end of Hilchot Shmita & Yovel (13:12-13). In

your opinion, what was the Rambam's source for these halachot?

======

 

PART II - QUESTIONS FOR PREPARATION (for weekly shiur)

 

1. To the best of recollection, what are the precise

geographical borders of the Land of Israel?  Can you quote a

source for your answer?

     When God promised the land to Avraham Avinu, did he tell

him the borders at that time?

  

2. In Parshat Masei (see 34:1-15), the Torah records the

precise borders of Eretz Canaan.  Is "eretz canaan" identical

with the Land of Israel?  [If you answered no, explain what

you based your answer on.]

  Review 34:1-15, taking special note of the eastern border.

Does it include the eastern bank of the Jordan River [i.e.

Transjordan]?

     If not, can you explain why?

 

3. Recall from Parshat Matot (chapter 32) that Moshe had

agreed to grant Transjordan as the official inheritance of Gad

and Reuven (on the condition that they first help in the

conquest of Eretz Canaan).  If indeed this area is outside the

above mentioned borders of Eretz Canaan, why did Moshe allow

this decision?

     In other words, if Transjordan is part of the holyland,

then it should be within the official borders! If not, how can

it be considered an inheritance of one of the tribes?

 

4. Based on the borders described in 34:1-15, is the Negev

part of the Land of Israel?  If so, which part of it? [Would

this include areas such as Eilat?]

     If the entire Negev is part of Eretz Canaan, why do Bnei

Yisrael pass through that area during their journey through

the desert?

 

5. Review 32:5-15, noting how Moshe compares Bnei Gad &

Reuven's request to the sin of the "meraglim". Nonetheless,

after their quick explanation, he agrees to their demands.

     In your opinion, what caused Moshe's change in attitude?

     In Bnei Gad & Reuven's response to Moshe, do they relate

in any manner to Moshe's initial accusation? If so, how?

 

6. To the best of your recollection, is there any other source

in Chumash that relates to the actual borders of the land of

Israel?  If so, how do those borders compare to the borders

described in Parshat Masei?

 

7. Scan thru Sefer Breishit noting the various instances when

God promises the 'Promised Land' to the Avot.  [To save you

some time, see Breishit 12:7, 13:14-17, 15:18, 17:7-8, 22:17-

18, 26:2-5, 28:3-4, 28:13-14, 35:11-12, 46:1-4, 48:4 & 21. See

as well Shmot 23:28-3.]

  From these sources, can you pinpoint the precise borders?

          [See also Breishit 10:15-19 in relation to 17:7-8.]

 

     Do any of these borders contradict one another?

     Be sure to relate to Breishit 15:18-20 [Brit Bein

Ha'btarim] in comparison to Breishit 17:7-8 [Brit Milah].

 

8.  When one says that the Promised Land is HOLY, what does

this imply? Does this statement relate to the realm of

"halacha"?

     If so, how? [Bring examples of any "halachot" that this

"kedusha" (holiness) relates to?

  Is this concept of "kedusha" found in any other realm of

Judiasm?  If so, can you explain how it is similar (or

different)?

 

9. Are you aware of any laws relating to the "kedusha" of the

Land of Israel that depend on who is sovereign in the Land?

     If so, what are they?

 

10.  Finally, see Rambam Hilchot Trumot 1:1-5. See also 1:26.

     As you study this Ramban, note how he provides a

'political' definition of the land of Israel (and not a

geographical one)!

     Based on the above questions, can you explain the reason

for this presentation?

     Note how the Rambam does relate to "eretz canaan", as

well as to the land the God had promised to Avraham Avinu.

Attempt to explain how and why Rambam reaches his conclusions

concerning the 'expandable' borders of the land.  Does it

appear as though he gives a 'limit' to this potential

expansion?

     According to this Ramban, what would be the halachic

status today of the land under the sovereignty of the State of

Israel?

 

PART III - PARSHANUT

 

THE FIRST PASUK OF PARSHAT MATOT

1. Read the opening pasuk in Parshat Matot (30:2).  As you

study this pasuk, make note of whatever problems that you

would assume that the classic commentators would deal with.

List them, but don't look at the commentators (yet).

 

2.  This opening pasuk (30:2) introduces a set of laws.  How

is it different than most other 'introductory psukim' that we

find in Chumash?

 

3.  Before we continue, note that the division of the Bible

according to chapters (a non-jewish tradition) begins this

chapter with the final pasuk of Parshat Pinchas! [See 30:1]

     Note how the division according to "parshiot" (a jewish

tradition) clearly contradicts the chapter division, as the

new 'parshia' begins in 30:2, and not in 30:1!

     According to simple "pshat", which division is correct?

     Can you think of any reason at all why this chapter

should begin in 30:1?  How does this pasuk (30:1) relate to

chapter 29?

     Use 28:2 (in relation to 30:1) to prove that Chazal are

correct!

  In your opinion, could this 'mistake' in the division of

chapters relate to the problem raised in the above question?

 

4.  This set of laws (of "nedarim" [vows]) is unique for it

was given specifically to the tribal leaders [you should have

noted this in question #1].

     In your opinion, were these laws given ONLY to the tribal

leaders (and not to the people)?

     If so, why shouldn't the people know these laws?

     If not, i.e. the laws were intended for everyone, why are

they first being given to the tribal leaders?

 

5. See Rashi on 30:2. How does he answer this question?

     There are two stages in Rashi's answer, explain each

stage.

     Note how Rashi refers to Shmot 34:31-32.

  To appreciate this Rashi, review Shmot 34:27-35, and attempt

to determine which specific mitzvot Moshe conveyed to Bnei

Yisrael when he came down from Har Sinai with the second

luchot.  [See commentators there as well.]

     Why are those psukim the key source for Rashi's

interpretation?

 

6. Now, see Ramban on 30:2. How does he answer this question?

     In what manner is his approach totally different than

Rashi's?

 

7.  Many commentators raise a more basic problem, i.e. what

are the laws of nedarim (vows) doing here (at this point in

Sefer Bamidbar) at all?

     Before you study the commentators, attempt to answer the

following questions:

  1) In what manner to the laws of nedarim relate to the

  preceding set of laws regarding the T'midim u'Musafim (i.e.

  chapters 28-29)?  Note the concluding psukim of that that

  unit!

  

  2) How do the laws of nedarim relate to the topics that

  follow, i.e. the war against Midyan & and the two & a half

  tribes? [Do any of those stories contain vows?]

 

  See Rashbam on 30:2. How does he answer this question?

     Does he relate to any other questions regarding 30:2?

    If so, what is his answer?

 

8.  See Ibn Ezra on 30:2.

     How would the Ibn Ezra answer the above question?

     Note that Ibn Ezra's interpretation implies that these

laws of nedarim were FIRST given to Bnei Yisrael at this time

(i.e. during the 40th year in the desert, after the war

against Midyan).!

  What is problematic about this opinion, and explain why

others would most probably disagree?

     If Ibn Ezra is correct, why aren't these laws recorded

immediately after the story in chapter 32?

  How does he deal with this problem in his commentary?

          [See also Chizkuni on 30:2.]

 

9. See Seforno on 30:2. How does Seforno connect these laws of

nedarim to the mitzvot that were given on Har Sinai?

     Would Seforno agree with Ibn Ezra in regard to when these

laws were first given?

 

10.  Next, carefully study 30:17.  Which of the above opinions

does this pausk support?

     Which commentary does it appear to contradict?

 

11.  The phrase "zeh ha'davar" is found several other times in

Chumash,  in relation to the:

  manna - see Shmot 16:16,32;

  Mishkan - see Shmot 35:4.

     Miluim ceremony - see Vayikra 8:5 ;

     Yom Ha'Shmini - see Vayikra 9:6 ;

     "shchutei chutz" - see Vayikra 17:2.

               [See also Bamidbar 36:6]

 

  Which of these instances is preceded by God instructing

Moshe beforehand (and which cases are not)?

     Now, carefully read the opening ten lines of Ramban's

commentary to 30:2. Why do your think that he compare our

pasuk (30:2) specifically to Vayikra 17:2, and not to the

others?

  How does he relate to all of the other cases mentioned

  above? [As you read this Ramban, note how thorough and

  concise his commentary is!]

 

 

HOW TO DIVIDE THE LAND?

1. God's command to Bnei Yisrael concerning how to apportion

the land appears to contain an internal contradiction. On the

one hand, it states:

  "You shall APPORTION the land among yourselves... with

  larger groups INCREASE the share, with smaller groups REDUCE

  the share... (see Bamidbar 26:54-55)

 

     This implies that the basis for apportioning the land was

the size of each tribe and/or family.

  Yet, the next pasuk seems to imply exactly the opposite:

    "Each portion shall be assigned by LOT, whether for

    larger or smaller groups"  (see 26:56)

 

     In Parshat Masei, this ambiguous command is repeated, but

in shorter form:

  "You shall apportion the land by LOTS, clan by clan: with

  LARGER groups increase the share, with SMALLER groups reduce

  the share. Wherever the LOT FALLS for anyone - that shall be

  his... (see 33:54)

 

     Based on these psukim, how do you think the land is

supposed to be apportioned?

     Can you resolve the apparent contradictions?

     In your answer, attempt to differentiate between the

geographical area which each tribe is to receive, and how that

area will be apportioned internally by each tribe according to

family clans.

     During the time of Yehoshua, how was the land actually

divided according to tribes; based on the population of each

tribe, or based on pre-set parcels of land?  In your answer,

relate to Yehoshua chapter 18.

 

     After you arrive at your conclusion (or if you give up),

see Ramban on 26:54 (it's complicated, but worthwhile if you

prepared).  [See also Rashi & Sforno.]

     [The Ramban is very long, but his basic point can be

understood from the first 10 or 15 lines. This topic is also

discussed at length in Baba Batra 117b.]

 

                              b'hatzlacha,

                              menachem

 






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